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by Ezer » 2 Oct 2005 14:50
When cutting keys by code, is there a generally accepted amount of allowable error to how close your cut is versus what it's supposed to be? For example say I make a 3 cut into a Y1 which is supposed to have a depth of .263,'' but when I measure the cut with my key micrometer it's .265'' deep instead. Is .002'' off considered acceptable, or do most locksmiths not even care as long as the key works the lock smoothly?
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by Shrub » 2 Oct 2005 15:25
To be honest 2 thou isnt going to make much differance, if you are getting that from a key machine with depth keys your fine, its only the thickness of a fag paper afterall.
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by Ezer » 2 Oct 2005 15:37
It's with a SwitchBlitz. If I go slow enough it's usually right on or .001'' or less off, but I can cut them pretty quick without worrying about being off by more than .002'' on a cut or two . It just got me wondering when I started measuring each cut if there was some sort of accepted standard to how close you should be.
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by Varjeal » 2 Oct 2005 17:00
If .002" is your max when cutting quickly then that is acceptable. I wouldn't be happy with anything worse than that though.

*insert witty comment here*
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by Shrub » 3 Oct 2005 4:57
Agreed.
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by davidgjr » 4 Oct 2005 21:51
I am not sure of what you are trying to do, but it also depends on how worn the key or lock is. If you are cutting a key to code for a lock that has been used a great deal, sometimes the code key doesn't work because of worn pins. I have had this happen a few times. If you experiment with different locks, sometimes you can be off several thou and it not matter. I had some cheap mortise cylinders once that were so sloppy I cut a key 5 thou off intentionally and it still worked. I have also had some cylinders where they had to be pretty much dead on to work.
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by Shrub » 5 Oct 2005 4:37
Everything has a tolerance thogh and weve sort of agreed that +/- 2 thou is the max acceptable, if a lock is sloppy and that toleance doesnt work then the lock should be changed or re pinnied/levered,
That said i would imagine a +/- 1 thou sounds the better practice,
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by davidgjr » 5 Oct 2005 6:42
I am not trying to argue which tolerance is accepable, but just to add to the discussion. I do work for a few real estate companies and cut quite a few keys by code for their clients, and have come across the problems I mentioned above.
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by vector40 » 5 Oct 2005 10:41
Here's a thought. Could it actually be desirable to cut a tiny bit high? Then the key would last longer -- it'd wear down to the actual cuts, then wear a little past, and only then stop working.
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by Varjeal » 5 Oct 2005 10:57
Pins=brass
key=brass (usually, or nickle brass)
In extremely general terms, the keys and pins tend to wear at the same rate. 
*insert witty comment here*
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by Keyring » 5 Oct 2005 11:48
Varjeal: I could be wrong but I think you are going to modify that post shortly, after a bit of a think.
Advantage of having an edit button.
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by davidgjr » 5 Oct 2005 12:44
Varjeal is right about the pins and keys wearing at the same rate. That is why I said sometimes a code key won't work in a lock where the pins are worn. I had to take a part a kwikset the other day that the key and poins were worn almost half a depth. If I woukld have cut it to code it would not have worked. I had tio gauge the key to the next highest cuts and re-cut a key and repin it to keep the same code. After this hurricane we just had, the phone is blowing up with calls.
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by Keyring » 5 Oct 2005 12:53
I assumes Varjeal was responding negatively to Vector40's suggestion. Maybe I'm wrong.
But if pins and keys wear at the same rate, it still means that the gap between top and bottom pin has moved towards the keyway. So the suggestion to err on the high side for a key is still valid.
Maybe not good for business but...
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by Chucklz » 5 Oct 2005 12:54
If your key is Nickle silver and your pins brass, they wont wear at the same rate...
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by Keyring » 5 Oct 2005 13:08
But, what does wearing at the same rate have to do with it. They wear... They get smaller...
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