Hello,
I was reading an article about master keys and there's a statement that doesn't make sense to me. Could someone please clarify?
http://www.crypto.com/papers/mk.pdf
"If every pin is mastered according to a standard TPP scheme, disassembly of a single lock will reveal 2^p potential master keys, where p is the number of pin stacks."
Makes sense.
"If the change key to a disassembled lock is available, the cuts corresponding to its bitting can be eliminated from each pin stack, making the correct bitting of the true master unambiguously clear from a single sample."
This is the part that I don't understand. Say you disassemble the lock and measure the pins, determining that the potential keys that fit the lock have some combination of 55555 and 44444 cuts (55545, 44454, etc.). One combination of this, of course, has to be the master configuration. What I don't understand is how the change key would cut 2^p combinations down to one. If the change key is 55544, obviously, that can't be the master key as well. But why can't the master configuration still be 55545, 44454, or any combination in between?
Sorry if the answer is really obvious!
Thanks!